In modern music performance, there is a school of thought that music should be performed exactly as intended by the composer called “Historically Informed Performance”.
This includes the notion of only using instruments and techniques that were available to the composer at the time the work was composed.
Do modern performers have the freedom to interpret music of the past in ways that the original composers may not have intended? May we use modern instruments? Place operas in modern settings?
Use female voices when male voices would have been used? Provide a clear defense for your position. If you consult outside sources, provide proper citation.
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